Comparing I John 1:8-10 with I John 3:6-9
The
main issue in the aforementioned verses is sin. When we read these verses, it
appears that the apostle John contradicts himself. Let’s examine them to find out
what’s going on.
In I John 1:8-10 we read, “If we say we
have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. If we confess
our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive our sins, and cleanse to us from
all unrighteousness. If we say we have not sinned, we make Him a liar, and His
word is not in us.”
Now,
in I John 3:6-9 we read, “Whoever
abides in Him does not sin (italics
added). Whoever sins has neither seen Him or known Him. Little children, let no
one deceive you. He who practices righteousness is righteous, just as He is
righteous.
He
who sins is of the devil, for the devil has sinned from the beginning. For this
purpose the Son of God was manifested that He might destroy the works of the
devil.
Whoever
is born of God does not sin (italics
added), for His seed remains in him, and he cannot
sin (italics added) because he has been born of God.”
The
first set of verses (I John 1:8-10) clearly tell us that we as believers do
sin, and that’s why I John 2:1-2 says…“that if anyone sins, we have an advocate
with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous. And He Himself is the propitiation
(or satisfaction) for our sins…
Jesus
delivered us from the power and penalty of sin forever, but currently not it’s
presence. Sin does continue to operate in our mortal flesh which has yet to
experience it’s redemption. We’ll experience that when Jesus returns for his
bride, the church and our bodies will be changed from mortal to immortal (I
Corinthians 15:51-58; I Thessalonians 4:13-18).
But,
in the second set of verses, we read that whoever abides in Him-that is in
Christ does not sin. Which set of verses are true? Verse nine in particular by
itself is implicit, meaning by it’s implication would purport one to believe
that Christians do not and can not sin. That is not what the verse is saying at
all. To define verse nine, we must connect it with verse seven which is an
explicit verse – a verse that is very clear with no ambiguity. Verse nine of I
John 3 is ambiguous when it stands alone.
Verse
seven of I John 3 says, “ He who practices righteousness is righteous, just as
He is righteous.
The
key word here is “practice”, from the Greek word prasso. To practice
something requires continuous, habitual action. The apostle John is comparing
those that are saved or righteous who practice righteousness verses those that
are wicked who practice wickedness.
Verse nine does not mean that we do not sin; we do. What it has
to mean is that believers do not
practice sin as a way of life. They’re not engaged in sin as they were prior to
their conversion, and they can not habitually sin, because God’s seed- the Holy
Spirit remain (abides, dwells, lives) in them. The Spirit of the living God
provides a checks and balance system within the believer to prevent him/her to
engage in habitual sinful behavior; and when we sin we know we must confess our
sins to the Lord (I John 1:9). That inward faculty will drive us to repentance
continually and keep us pure.
These
verses provide a litmus test for anyone to know whether they’re truly born
again or not. Do you endeavor to
practice righteous living or unholy living? No one can have it both ways!
We
must remember and accept that the fact that sin has no more dominion over us
because we’re free from it (Romans 6:12). We’re no longer slaves to it.
In conclusion
We
must always remember to interpret implicit passages in light of the explicit
ones. In this case, we interpret I John
3:6a and vs. 9 (The implicit) in light
of I John 3:7 along with I John 1:8-10 (The explicit). When we do this, we do
not run into error. This is proper hermeneutics.
A
person who claims to know God and sins habitually is a liar. And as the
scripture say the truth is not in them (I John 1:8); Explicitly speaking, that
type of person is not saved.
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