Who or what is the Church?

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Will one be sent to hell for calling someone a fool?

We all use the word fool every day. It's part of our daily vocabulary. We call people fools when someone does something we do not like, and we use it often times in jest toward one another. Are there times when we should not call someone a fool?

I would like to examine that in this article.

The word fool has several meanings. One Hebrew word is nabal. This is a person who is a deviant in their behavior, who is ungodly and plots evil. In the Proverbs, the fool is primarily described as one who lacks wisdom because they despise instruction - they act without thinking. This Hebrew word is ewil. Another Hebrew word is kesil. This person is obstinate, arrogant, has no desire for wisdom, Godly wisdom - they not only commit evil, they enjoy wickedness. They also refuse rebuke.  That type of person is a wrecking ball and should be avoided. They are incorrigible. 

In Matthew 5:21-22 we read, "You have heard that the ancients were told, "You shall not commit murder, and whoever commits murder shall be liable to the court.' But I say to you that everyone who is angry with his brother shall be guilty before the court, and whoever says to his brother, "You good-for-nothing', shall be guilty before the supreme court, and whoever says, 'You fool', shall be guilty enough to go into the fiery hell. The word fool here is the Greek word moros - where we get our English word moron.

Jesus is the one speaking in these verses. Why is his language here so severe? To get the import of the meaning, we must understand the context.

Jesus began by saying one that is angry with his brother shall be guilty before the court. Committing murder violated the sixth commandment (Ex 20:13) and was punishable by death (Ex 21:12). Here, Jesus said if one is angry with his brother shall be guilty (italics mine) before the court. Jesus is equating anger with murder - not just any anger, but a murderous anger based on an internal hatred. Remember murder is the context in these verses. 

Jesus takes it a step further. He says if one calls his brother. "you good-for-nothing" (or "Raca") shall be guilty before the counsel or the supreme court. If you call your brother a moron, your guilt is at its worst because your hatred of your brother is wicked enough to send you to hell. That person has exceeded the court of men and has caught the attention of God Almighty.

 I do not know about you, but to me that warning is terrifying! And anyone that knows me well know I do not scare easily. 

When one calls someone a moron in this sense,  we are insulting a person at the lowest possible level. We are calling them a worthless, stupid person. It's the worst character assassination. Jesus sees this type of verbal abuse against one's brother morally repugnant.

      Why?

The problem is not just the words, but the attitude behind the words. If it were just the words, that brought condemnation, then Jesus would be guilty as well - for he called the Scribes and Pharisees hypocrites and blind fools (Matt 23).

Paul also rebuked the Galatians and called them foolish. Why? Because they became duped into believing their justification was by the works of the law rather than the law of faith (Gal 3). They knew better for Paul had taught them their salvation came as a result of the atoning work of Christ and their belief in that work and not by their own efforts.  So, in these two instances, it was justified and actually loving for both Christ and Paul to rebuke their audience and explain to them why they were foolish. Turning away from being a fool and embracing Godly wisdom will save your soul.

But, when one has venomous hatred against another human being without a cause, that evil Jesus regards as bad as the act of murder itself, and if someone does not repent of it, could lead to actual murder. Do you understand what Jesus was teaching to his audience? He not only taught the written law, but he amplified its meaning on a level far more revelatory than Moses could have done. For in this context he tells us a man's anger based on an internal hatred is as if he committed homicide! Why? Because of the wickedness in the person.  This is clearly a loving and severe warning from our Lord how we are not to treat one another.

Another point that I must make is when one maligns a fellow human being, it is an attack on God himself. How? All men no matter how scandalous their character are made in the image of God (James 3;8-9).

In 1 John 3;15 we read these sobering words, "Everyone who hates his brother is a murderer, and you know that no murderer has eternal life abiding in him."

It cannot be made any clearer than that.

Listen to the command of the Lord through Paul, "If possible, so far as it depends on you, live peaceably with all men (Rom 12:18)."

Finally, let's examine our attitudes and our tongues toward all.

Rejoice in hope, be patient in tribulation, be constant in prayer (Rom 12:12).

What is Universalism?

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What is foreknowledge?

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The Rapture

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Why death couldn't hold Jesus in the grave

   Some would look at the title of this message as a question and it would be okay to look at it that way. Everyone else that has ever lived has died and has remained dead. Even those who Jesus raised from the dead like Lazarus eventually died again (John 11:43).  Why do we die? Because of sin. 

   Romans 6:23 declares, "The wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord." This verse has a negative and a positive. The morbid truth is we all die because of sin, but the wonderful contrast is that eternal life is given to all freely who believe in the Lord Jesus Christ for their soul salvation. 

    Here's a question that MUST be answered, since Jesus never committed any sin, why did he have to die? The Bible answers that question for us; to be a propitiation for mankind's sins. What in the world does propitiation mean? It is the Greek word hilasmos. This means Christ's sacrifice was the means by which a person can have their sins removed from them forever when they believe. Christ had to die in order to appease the Father's anger against him for being made sin although he personally knew no sin because he never committed any sin (2 Cor 5:21).

   Sin always has to be judged and punished. The only one worthy to accept the punishment for all of the mankind's sins and eradicate it was Jesus alone. Imagine how terrible it would be if every person that will ever live had to pay for their own sins! What that would mean is God would be exercising his justice with no mercy and everyone would go to hell!  And get this, he would be totally righteous in doing so! We all deserve God's wrath.

 Getting back to the original statement, Christ HAD to die because of our sins, and get this, he HAD to raise from the dead because he has no sin! Both scenarios had to play out in the one person, Christ Jesus. A sinless divine and human being had to die in order to appease the Father's wrath against sin, and only a sinless divine human being can raise himself from the dead (John 10:18)! Sinful mankind could never pull that off. Death cannot hold a perfect man in the grave. That is why Jesus rose in three days like he declared (Matt 16:21). 

 In Acts 2:23-24 we read, "this Jesus delivered up according to the definite plan and foreknowledge of God, you crucified and killed by the hands of lawless men. God raised up, loosing the pangs of death because it was not possible (emphasis added) for him to be held by it."

  Here's the wonderful news for believers, we will be raised from death like Christ. Here's the proof, "who will transform our body of our humble state into conformity with the body of his glory..."(Phil 3:21).

  

  

Who wrote the Bible?

A simple but most important question. Many years ago I was heading home from work on the bus. I was sitting in the back and heard a man say, “well you know man wrote the Bible!” Since he was in my earshot, I felt compelled to tell him that that was an untrue statement. Surprisingly, he listened to me as I presented my case. The scripture I used to prove my point was 2 Timothy 3:16, “All scripture is theopneustos in the original Greek language or God-breathed, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction and for training in righteousness; that the man of God may be complete or mature, equipped for every good work.”

The man’s reply to me was, “You’re the first person to ever tell me that!” Why do I bring this matter up? Because it is essential that we as believers can 1) know the origin of the Bible, and 2) be able to properly defend its truthfulness (1 Pet 3:15; Jude 3).

If we believe man wrote the Bible, then it is no different than any other false religious book. It does not have divine authority, and it is untrustworthy. But, if we believe the collection of 66 books are of a divine origin, then we have to believe it has absolute authority, and we MUST submit to its demands.

Here is another passage that proves that the Bible is God’s word, “Knowing this first of all, that no prophecy of Scripture comes from someone’s own interpretation. For no prophecy was ever (italics mine) by the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit” (2 Peter 2:20-21).

Someone may still argue that “The words were still written by men!” True. But that is where it ends. Man did not contribute any wisdom or insight into God’s word. Man was only an instrument the Lord used to record it.

In Exodus 24:12 God commands Moses to come up to Mount Sinai so he could receive tablets of stone with the Lord’s commandments on them (Emphasis added). Once again, these are God’s words, not man’s.

All throughout scripture we read the phrase(s), “The word of the Lord came to me saying, or God spoke to….”

Jeremiah 1:4 – Now the word of the Lord came to me saying…

Jeremiah 1:9 – Then the Lord put out his hand and touched my mouth. And the Lord said to me, “Behold I have put my words in your mouth.”

Jeremiah 30:2 – Thus says the Lord, the God of Israel: Write in a book all the words that I have spoken to you.

Ezekiel 3:4 – And he said to me, “Son of man, all my words that I shall speak to you receive in your heart, and hear with your ears.”

Ezekiel 22:1 – And the word of the Lord came to me saying…

Zechariah 4:8 – Then the word of the Lord came to me saying…

Jonah 1:1 – Now the word of the Lord came to Jonah the son of Amittai saying…

1 Kings 21:17 – Then the word of the Lord came to Elijah the Tishbite saying…

Luke 3:2 – during the high priesthood of Annas and Caiaphas, the word of God came to John the son of Zechariah in the wilderness.

Acts 13:48 – And when the Gentiles heard this, they began rejoicing and glorifying the word of the Lord, and as many as were appointed to eternal life believed.

1 Corinthians 14:37 – If anyone thinks he is a prophet or spiritual, let him recognize that the things I write to you are the Lord’s commandment.

Even Jesus while on the earth respected and obeyed his Father’s commands. “For I have not spoken on my own authority, but the Father who sent me has himself given me a commandment – what to say and what to speak (John 12:49).

These men of God did not move unless commanded to do so. Jonah is an exception – he did not initially obey the word of God when he was commanded to preach to Nineveh (Jon 1:3). He did obey later on (Jon 3:1).

The aforementioned verses clearly let us know the words in our Bibles come from God. This is the order of how the word of God came to us in the present:

1

.       Revelation – God supernaturally disclosing his words to the prophets and apostles and men of old

2.       Inspiration – Or better translated, God-breathed. From the mind of the prophet to the original document. Lord placed his words in the minds and hearts of the human authors of scripture to record it on a document

3.       Canonicity – The process that determines which books would comprise our Bibles. We have 66 books in our Protestant Bibles. The Catholic Bible has an additional 12 books called the Apocrypha.[1] Protestants do not believe the Apocrypha are inspired books. Two of the books have reliable historic material – The books of 1 & 2 Maccabees

4.       Transmission – The method of preserving and getting the manuscripts through time to us in the present

5.       Textual Criticism – We have numerous extant (or existing) manuscripts that have to be placed into Old & New Testaments, Hebrew and Greek Bibles

6.       Translation – The process of getting our Hebrew and Greek Bibles into one’s native language

Men throughout history have carefully preserved the Biblical text. That has been their involvement regarding it. He has never had the responsibility or the right to write his own thoughts. The wisdom it contains is far too great for any man or committee of men to develop. The reason the writer of this article can dogmatically say that is because I have read the entire Bible several times, and feel like I have just scratched the surface regarding its marvelous truth. One of my teachers likened his knowledge of Biblical truth like walking along the beach standing at the shoreline with his feet barely getting wet. In his mind, he had not reached into the deep richness of God’s word. What was amazing about his statement was he had been teaching God’s word for forty years and was an amazing and extraordinary expositor of the truth before his passing.

So again, the question must be asked, “Who wrote the Bible?” If you say man wrote it, then we must conclude that it contains nothing but errors and cannot be trusted. It is corrupted and should be thrown away. But, if these are the very words of God, then we must embrace it as the most precious, priceless commodity on earth and be willing to study it diligently, learn its precepts, plumb its depths, obey its commands, preach and teach it lovingly, and boldly, and defend it at all costs. That is what faithful men and women have done throughout history; they were convinced the word of God was true and many gave their lives for it.

Why should we do this?

Simple, because its true (Pro 30:5; John 17:17).

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[1] Apocrypha means hidden. These books were written in what is called the intertestamental period – between the Old and New Testaments. None of the N.T. writers quote from these books. That is why they are not included with the Canon – i.e. the sixty-six. If they are in any Bibles they should be included as a post script indicating they are non-canonical.