The Gospel Of Repentance

The above mentioned phrase is usually used in our society as a kind way of saying you wish someone well in whatever it is they are doing; whether it is a new job, their education, or perhaps a new business venture. But, what is luck? What does it mean to be lucky or unlucky? Is there actually a thing in our world called luck? And if so, where does it come from? Permit me to be technical in this article. To some, I may even be annoying. I will accept that. I am going to attempt to break this idea down so we can see if luck really exists.  A definition of luck: Success or failure brought by chance rather than through one's own actions. Definition of chance: a force that causes good or bad things to happen. When we say things happen by chance, we are saying things happen for no reason at all. That is impossible. Absolutely everything that happens in our lives is for a reason even when we do not understand why they happen good or bad. If we are depending on "the l...

In the book of Leviticus chapters 18:22 and 20:13 God through Moses condemns homosexuality. Also in Leviticus 19:19b the word tells Israel that they were not to wear two different types of material sewn together. The command regarding the clothing is an ambiguous one. The reasoning behind that one is some believe that pagan nations may have worn different clothing sewn together when performing some type of occultic ritual and thus Israel who were/are God's chosen people, and had to be separate in every way from all other nations were forbidden from this practice. We do not know for sure. The reason I bring the matter up is that so many people who lack Biblical discernment have this notion that since homosexuality was condemned in the Mosaic law and is of course condemned in the new testament (Read Romans 1 and 1 Corinthians 6), then it is also sinful to wear two different types of clothing (i.e. Denim and cotton), and to eat shellfish or shrimp since they were also supposedly...

In Isaiah chapter 38 we read that King Hezekiah became very ill to the point of death. He is in the prime of his life so he humbles and prays to the Lord how he has been faithful to God, and how he has served him with his whole heart.  God hears his prayer and sends him word through the prophet Isaiah that he will add fifteen years to his life (vs 5). Hezekiah was suffering from a painful boil. A cake of figs was made which apparently had the medicinal properties to heal Hezekiah once it was rubbed on the boil to heal him (vs 21). Question, how did Hezekiah's life change so dramatically when it was told to him by the prophet to "put your house in order because you are going to die and not live" (vs 1)? Simply, due to Hezekiah's prayer. It moved the hand and heart of God to act on his behalf. The text said the Lord heard Hezekiah's prayer and saw his tears (vs 5).  I am bringing this point up because of the fact that some reading this account may get...

Paul is discussing marriage in this chapter. The reason I wanted to discuss the matter is because I'm sure there is confusion regarding the fact that Paul says in verse 12 that, "To the rest I say (I, not the Lord) that if any brother has a wife who is an unbeliever, and she consents to live with him, he should not divorce her. If any woman has a husband who is an unbeliever, and he consents to live with her, she should not divorce him. For the unbelieving husband is made holy because of his wife, and the unbelieving wife is made holy because of her husband. Otherwise your children would be unclean, but as it is, they are holy. But if the unbelieving partner separates, let it be so. In such cases the brother or sister is not enslaved. God has called us to peace. For how do you know, wife whether you will save your husband? Or how do you know husband if you will save your wife? When Paul states in verse 12 to the rest I say and not the Lord, he is by no means giving his...

This is one of those apparent contradictory statements by Jesus again. I love these type of statements by the Lord. And why? Because it forces me to carefully examine the text to see what he meant by this controversial phrase.  Once again to understand what Jesus meant, we must understand the context in which he said it. Matthew 10:34-37 says, "Do not think that I came to bring peace on the earth, but a sword . For I came to set a man against Father, and a Daughter against her Mother, and a Daughter-In-Law against her Mother-In-Law; and a man's enemies will be those of his own household. He who loves Father and Mother more than me is not worthy of me. And he who does not take up his cross and follow after me is not worthy of me. He who has found his life will lose it, and he who will lose his life for my sake will find it." The prior verses tell us that Jesus had commissioned his disciples to preach the gospel, heal the sick, raise the dead, and cast of demons (...

In Psalm 139:21 we read David saying, "Do I not hate them O Lord that hate you? And am I not grieved with those that rise up against you? I hate them with perfect hatred. I count them my enemies." These feelings by David are in contradiction to what Jesus taught us about loving our enemies and doing good to them right (Matt 5:44)? So why did David feel justified in hating his enemies? How could he make such an out loud and brash statement like he did? The word hate is the Hebrew word miseo. The word has several meanings; malice, disregard, preferring one thing over another, dislike. David was justified in saying he hated those that hated God because those that hate God are his enemies, and are bent on committing evil. The nations that Israel had to drive out of Canaan were perversely wicked nations that God commanded them to destroy. Why? Because God hated those nations. Would God have commanded those nations be destroyed if he loved them?  Of course not. An evil person...

To those in the Charismatic and Pentecostal communities, the question is a no-brainer. They are convinced there is a heavenly language spoken of in the Bible. If so, where would one find this language? In 1 Corinthians 13 and 14.  In 1 Corinthians 13:1 we read, "Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels ..." Now, when Paul says he speaks with the tongues of angels, is he speaking literally or figuratively? It would have to be figuratively. Every time an angel spoke in the Bible, they spoke in the language of the people they were talking to - not in some "angel talk". Yet many have determined that speaking with the tongues of angels is speaking in tongues. How they come to that conclusion is a mystery to me.  Are there two different gifts of tongues in the Bible? The reason I present this question is because there are those that believe and teach there are two types of tongues in scripture - one for the Church in public use that requires inte...